The following verse alone proves that Jesus was sent ONLY to the Israelites:-
The word ONLY (Greek: εἰ, pronounced "ei") ) in the verse proves that he was not sent to any other people except the Israelites.
So, Jesus was not sent "first" to the Jews and "later" to the whole world as you people falsely claim but to the Jews ONLY!
Look up for the meaning of the word ONLY in your dictionary.
Bengel's Gnomon of the New Testament on Matthew 15:24 confesses:-
"Matthew 15:24. Ἀπεστάλην, I am sent) Our Lord referred everything to His Mission.—πρόβατα, sheep) ISRAEL is the Lord’s flock (see Psalms 95), Jesus the Shepherd.—οἴκου Ἰσραήλ, the house of Israel) THIS APPEARS TO RESTRICT HIS GRACE." (Source: https://biblehub.com/commentaries/bengel/matthew/15.htm)
John 1:11, admit that Jesus was only sent to the Israelites (his own):-
"He came to that which was HIS OWN, but his own did not receive him." (John 1:11)
Berne's Notes on the Bible on John 1:11 say:
"His own "people." There is a distinction here in the original words which is not preserved in the translation. It may be thus expressed: "He came to his own land, and his own people received him not." They were his people, because God had chosen them to be his above all other nations; had given to them his laws; and had signally protected and favored them, Deuteronomy 7:6; Deuteronomy 14:2. Received him not - Did not acknowledge him to be the Messiah. " (Source: https://biblehub.com/commentaries/barnes/john/1.htm).
"Jesus sent out the twelve apostles with these instructions: “Don’t go to the Gentiles or the Samaritans," (Matthew 10:5 NLT)
"but only to the people of Israel —God’s lost sheep." (Matthew 10:6 NLT)
From which tribe of the 12 tribes of Israel are Christians? None? Then the NT paradise is not for them !
Allah ﷻ said in Quran,
Allah says in Quran,

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