A QUESTION THAT DESERVES A CLEAR ANSWER!
If Jesus is eternally God, equal to the Father, and fully divine, then consider this:
When Jesus was in Mary's womb:
1. Was he truly experiencing human development? A human baby grows, depends on his mother, and has limited physical abilities.
2. Did his divine nature remain unchanged? If so, how do you explain the relationship between his unlimited divine nature and his limited human experience?
3. Was the Son still sustaining the entire universe while developing inside Mary's womb? If yes, how should we understand this relationship?
4. Did the Father and the Holy Spirit also become incarnate, or was only the Son incarnate? If only the Son, how do the three persons remain one God while having distinct experiences?
Christians often explain this through the doctrine of the Hypostatic Union: Jesus has two natures, divine and human, united in one person.
But this leads to an even deeper question:
How does this union work without compromising either his full humanity or his full divinity?
We welcome a clear explanation supported by reason and scripture.
A sincere question deserves more than a label. It deserves an explanation.
CAN HUMAN REASON EXPLAIN THE ORIGIN OF
